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1 Corinthians Chapter 15







 

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RichFairhurst's 1 Corinthians Chapter 15 comment about verse 5 on 3/19/2022, 12:40am...

It can't mean what you say here or in Romans to be the corralary to anything said about Christ. Romans is devastating to your position and your view is untenable. It can't be carried through the parts of that passage and leave Paul saying anything sensible about a type/antitype relationship. If the point of Adam is only the physical death all men suffer, then how can Paul say the opposite of that in Christ is the gift of grace, justification, the gift of righteousness shall reign in life, justification of life, grace did much more abound, and so grace might reign through righteousness to eternal life.

Obviously Paul is not merely making a case that Christ gives physical resurrection as a to counter to the physical death brought by Adam to all men. The case being made by Paul for Christ is the counter agent to the second death in all of its aspects. The type does not set up the antitype if the type only poses the danger of physical death and nothing more. Paul is proving far too much in opposition to merely that. I reject your proposed interpretation out of hand.

 


RichFairhurst's 1 Corinthians Chapter 15 comment about verse 5 on 3/18/2022, 10:17pm...

Originally I wrote a post saying that trying to show that "shall be made alive" in 1 Corinthians 15:22 is more than just physical resurrection may be trying to prove too much. But I was wrong.

The word translated "shall be made alive" zoopoiethesontai is derived from a word that is used in the New Testament for being resurrected or quickened to eternal life. Here are the other passages that use derivatives of this word:

John 5:21

John 6:63

Romans 4:17

Romans 8:11

1 Corinthians 15:36

1 Corinthians 15:45

2 Corinthians 3:6

Galatians 3:21

1 Peter 3:18

This word cannot mean life common to all men living and moving and having their being in Christ, nor can it mean simply resurrection to either eternal life or the second death. Under this meaning I am persuaded that the word "all" in 1 Corinthians cannot be an unlimited universal "all" and in both instances where it is used in this passage it is limited by the words "in Adam" and "in Christ". "In Christ" appears to be used in this passage by Paul in a similar way to the way he uses that phrase and the phrase "in Him" in Ephesians.

Ephesians 1:2-4,7,10,13,20

Ephesians 2:6-7,10,13,20-22

Ephesians 3:6,11-12

Ephesians 4:32

This also suggests that "all men" in Romans 5:18 is limited by the "one man" being referenced, either Adam or Christ.

The connection that Adam and Christ share in common with the "all" in 1 Corinthians 15:22 and Romans 5:8 has several different interpretations that have been offered. Personally I believe there is a federal headship connection. "Things done by one may be imputed unto others, propter relationem foederalem, because of a covenant relation between them." Hodge

I also believe Adam and Christ are uniquely qualified and appointed by God to be the first fruits of their respective seed. No other human beings can be presented before God in the way they can.

 


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