Chris's Psalms Chapter 68 comment on 3/08/2023, 4:18pm...
Hello Mary. The answer to your question quite probably lies in the grammar of the Hebrew language, that is used in the Old Testament. Unlike in English where we don't have a clear distinction in the word 'they/them/those' (i.e. they can refer to any gender, unless the subject is clear), in Hebrew, even the words 'they/them/those' are allocated a specific gender without the need to specify whether male or female.
Now in Psalm 68:11, the KJV rendering is correct (i.e. "...great was the company of those that published it"), but when examining the word, 'those', in Hebrew apparently, 'those' is given a feminine gender, which then necessitates the meaning, 'that the large group of people publishing the good news (i.e. rejoicing & dancing maybe because of victories won or from the giving of the Law)', were women. And often, we read in the Bible of women who are conspicuous in their presence in such celebrations (e.g. Exodus 15:20; Judges 21:21,23; 1 Samuel 18:6; Jeremiah 31:13: 'virgin', relates to young women; & maybe other references).
So, those translators that showed that these were women who came out to "publish the Word", & in all probability, in song, fanfare, & dance, were likely more accurate in their reading of the Hebrew, whereas the KJV only shows it as 'a great company', which of course may have included males as they took part in celebrations (with music, etc.).
Mary Abraham's Psalms Chapter 68 comment on 3/08/2023, 7:18am...
Verse 11......"11 The Lord announces the word, and the women who proclaim it are a mighty throng:" (NIV )
Some translations use the word "women" in place of "company". NIV and ASV use women. Wonder why? This verse was used on banners by marchers in 1920 in their effort to support women's right to vote. I am confused. Why was it altered in some versions?
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Chris's Psalms Chapter 68 comment on 3/08/2023, 4:18pm...
Hello Mary. The answer to your question quite probably lies in the grammar of the Hebrew language, that is used in the Old Testament. Unlike in English where we don't have a clear distinction in the word 'they/them/those' (i.e. they can refer to any gender, unless the subject is clear), in Hebrew, even the words 'they/them/those' are allocated a specific gender without the need to specify whether male or female.
Now in Psalm 68:11, the KJV rendering is correct (i.e. "...great was the company of those that published it"), but when examining the word, 'those', in Hebrew apparently, 'those' is given a feminine gender, which then necessitates the meaning, 'that the large group of people publishing the good news (i.e. rejoicing & dancing maybe because of victories won or from the giving of the Law)', were women. And often, we read in the Bible of women who are conspicuous in their presence in such celebrations (e.g. Exodus 15:20; Judges 21:21,23; 1 Samuel 18:6; Jeremiah 31:13: 'virgin', relates to young women; & maybe other references).
So, those translators that showed that these were women who came out to "publish the Word", & in all probability, in song, fanfare, & dance, were likely more accurate in their reading of the Hebrew, whereas the KJV only shows it as 'a great company', which of course may have included males as they took part in celebrations (with music, etc.).
Mary Abraham's Psalms Chapter 68 comment on 3/08/2023, 7:18am...
Verse 11......"11 The Lord announces the word, and the women who proclaim it are a mighty throng:" (NIV )
Some translations use the word "women" in place of "company". NIV and ASV use women. Wonder why? This verse was used on banners by marchers in 1920 in their effort to support women's right to vote. I am confused. Why was it altered in some versions?
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