“(To the chief Musician, A Psalm of David.) The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good.”
King James Version (KJV)
Shadae's comment on 2014-01-18 00:34:49:
To the question that Susan asked, When God set out to ha e the bible written he guided it all the years as it spread to make sure no man or devil can change the Word from what He intended. He has promised a curse on anyone who is to try and change the Word.
Rev. Autrey's comment on 2014-01-08 11:27:50:
(Verse 1) "Only fools say in their hearts, "There is no God." They are corrupt, and their actions are evil. No one does good!"
The God the writer is talking about in this verse is Jesus. We know this because in verse 7 the writer says, "Oh, that salvation would come from Mount Zion to rescue Israel!" That is, when will Jesus come and save his people? We know that Jesus did come, because Jesus the Savior was born to the Jews many years later, and died to take away our sins.
The people who deny Jesus "are corrupt, and their actions are evil" because they deny that Jesus is God. Yes, they may say that Jesus is "a" God, or that Jesus came from God, but they will not say that Jesus is God Most High. They completely ignore the Scripture that says, "For unto us a child is born, and unto us a son is given. And his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, THE MIGHTY GOD. ..." Then is says that this is guaranteed by God himself.
OH, that we would understand!
Susan's comment on 2013-03-06 12:28:28:
My question is within the scripture of Psalms 14:1 "The fool hath said in his heart, [There is] no God. They are corrupt, they have done adominable works, [there is] none that doeth good", has inputted [sics] in two places. First within the first sentence which if omitted would give an entirely new meaning to this scripture. If in fact the scripture was originally written to read "the fool hath said in his heart, no God..." then the pronouncement being made is profoundly different from what it has been changed to read. It denotes that the fool is not denying the existence of God, but, that he is consciously and willingly saying no to God. This in my view changes the meaning and interpretation of this scripture. In the second case of the added [sic] it changes the meaning of the sentence from an absolute declaration of "none being good" (which to me encompasses all time) to a more present or current referencing of peoples. In any case, I would like to know what was the original way Psalms 14:1 was truly written. Thank you and have a blessed one!