“Not because I desire a gift: but I desire fruit that may abound to your account.”
King James Version (KJV)
BSP's comment on 2020-08-31 07:46:04:
Verse 4-Paul wrote this while he was in prison. He had true godly joy that did not depend on what was happening around him or what was happening to him. His joy was focused on the Lord.
Sheyla's comment on 2020-07-01 22:46:31:
What is the purpose of the vision of Daniel regatdong the 4 mechanic visions.
Adam's comment on 2020-06-04 19:33:15:
>If Adam and Eve were the first two humans on earth, where did Cain find a wife?
The Bible already answered that. The land of Nod. Either Adam and Eve's children and grand children populated in that area or God may have created more people after Adam and Eve. But to assume that just because something is unspoken that there's automatically contradictions or multiple accounts sounds like a false assumption to me. For instance the Bible is a limited book to only so many pages. There's no room to document every single detail of everyone's life. For instance there's ages of Jesus' life that we don't have any information on, and it never said once that he went to the bathroom or took a shower. Does that automatically mean he didn't or that since the Bible omits it that it's untrue? No, that would be a false assumption.
Jews were God's chosen people which is why its distiguished from others. I don't understand why you think that discredits the book of Genesis.
>Why do we have different races on the planet after 6000 years of inter-breeding? A change in the location of a person does not make him a different race!
Why would you assume there's 6000 years of interbreeding? Have you ever read about the Tower of Babel? It says different languages were created and they were dispersed throughout the world. It seems likely to me that God also made different races/cultures and the Bible just doesn't mention it. So, Africans to Africa, Chinese to China, Indians to India, Russians to Russia, etc. To me that is most likely and just because it's not mentioned doesn't mean that the book of Genesis is flawed or has multiple accounts or contradicts itself. I think it's unlikely that 8 people on Noah's Ark covered all the variety of races and cultures and were separated geographically too. This happened post-flood. That's all I will answer at this time. God bless.
Mishael's comment on 2020-06-04 17:09:21:
One of Jesus's names is The Bread of Life.
At the Last Supper He explains it to the Disciples.
Type that into this websites search box: bread of life; come and Taste the Goodness of the Lord.
D.J.'s comment on 2020-06-04 14:33:10:
If the book of Genesis is one cohesive book, then why are the events of Genesis chapter 10 concerning the dispersion of the children of Noah given to us BEFORE the cause of their dispersion in Genesis chapter 11? (i.e. the scattering of the sons of Noah in chapter 10 took place BECAUSE of the events that happened at the Tower of Babel in chapter 11)
If Adam and Eve were the first two humans on earth, where did Cain find a wife?
If Adam and Eve are the ONLY two people from which all humans descend from, then why does God make a point to distinguish between a Jew and a Gentile? (1 Corinthians 10:32)
Why do we have different races on the planet after 6000 years of inter-breeding? A change in the location of a person does not make him a different race!
Why does the HEBREW definition of the word "Gentile" refer to a FOREIGN nation from the nation of Israel?
Why is the word "man" in Genesis 1:26 given in plural and defined as "mankind in general"?
Why is the word "man" in Genesis 2:7 given in singular form, with the article, denoting the particular man Adam?
Some of these topics may require research; (2 Timothy 2:15).
Remember, the Bible was not written in English!
There are many resources available to help gain a deeper understanding of the Word of God: Concordances (Strong's), Interlinear Bibles (Green's), Commentaries, etc.
May God be with you in your quest to understand Scripture!
Mishael's comment on 2020-06-04 10:48:46:
If we follow the center page columns of Genesis; it leads to other references, which on those pages lead to other references, forward and backward.
Scriptures about Lucifers fall; becoming Satan and meddling in Gods work begins to show what happened.
The 1/3 evil angels were cast out of heaven and hurled to earth with Lucifer. They are referred to as: other people's or inhabitants. Just search those words in Old Testament.
We don't know what they looked like (caveman vs human-like), they were pre-Adam. Being evil they We're probably evil going forward. If their bodies were destroyed, that would explain how demons are invisible but unmistakable in their fruits.
Somehow scripture says that God turned the earth upside down. I have no idea what would result if you flip the POLES. It turned to ice. God took everything away that made life livable on earth. Lucifer got them all killed? Looks like God left it like that for some time.
Back in the history pages I listed some of those scriptures; about the ice, etc. it's all KjV Bible. No interpretation. All was written in Hebrew, original text.
I had a lot of that info in my Bible with boxes drawn around them. I had not made the connections with the center references.
I'm praying now if God even wants us to put this "out there"?? We know there are demons on this planet already. Somewhere back there they lost their human-like bodies. Now they search to inhabit bodies by deceit and lies. Reprobate people invite them in for power to deceive humans.
Every one (demon) Jesus encountered, got cast out! No bargaining. Why study this? Untaught people, unbelieving people, are being driven crazy and whipped in to frenzy by riots. Like the one that in unison screamed for Jesus's crucifixion. Riots have become the norm since the Wash. DC, LA riots. Maybe God wants people to know what the work of demons are, so they will turn to Jesus for deliverance and salvation?
Look in the history pages (1-5).
Jesse's comment on 2020-06-04 09:48:29:
1 Corinthians 10:3, John 6:27, John 6:51, 1 Peter 2:2, Hebrews 5:12-14 are just a few of many places. In John 4:32, after Jesus' disciples brought Him physical food, Jesus said "I have meat to eat that ye know not of."
I don't know if you have ever experienced this before, but Christians have somewhat many times, where you are physically hungry, and you are physically tired, but then in some way, shape, or form, God ministers through you to someone else, or from someone else to you, and whatever physical hunger you have or physical thirst you have, it doesn't make any difference. That physical hunger or physical thirst somehow just disappears!
The spiritual food is contentment in and of itself. You are not as hungry as you used to be or as starved as you used to be. Now what is interesting in John Chapter 4 is that the woman left her waterpot behind. Jesus said you just brought physical food from the city, but I have food to eat that you know not of. He ministered God's word to this woman.
Adam's comment on 2020-06-04 08:35:50:
The book of Genesis is one cohesive book and has always been. So, unless you provide evidence of how there's 2 creation accounts I of course don't believe it. So far you cited 2 verses which weren't evidence and you said there's 2 chapters, which aren't evidence either. Is that your only evidence? A chapter break has nothing to do with a different account in Genesis nor any other book, and chapter and verse breaks were in the original scrolls, but added later to make it easier to read. I also guessed as to what possibly could have been an assumption in order to come to such a conclusion, but you didn't elaborate on why you assume what you do. God bless.
David LetscherDJ's comment on 2020-06-04 08:23:34:
Whether they are spoken of separately or combined, the "Jews" (2 Kings 16:6), the "Gentiles" (Genesis 10:5), and the "church of God" (1 Corinthians 1:2) make up the three-fold subject matter of the word of God. Every part of the Bible is, in general, written concerning one of these three classes or divisions of persons. Therefore, what is written needs to be appropriately interpreted and applied to the class or division of people to which it was written for!
The misappropriation of these three classes of people; "Jews," "Gentiles," and the "church" of God, into Scripture where they do not belong is one of the foremost reasons why the word of God is misunderstood, look at Galatians 1:13, Ephesians 1:22, 5:23, Philippians 3:6, Colossians 1:24.
D,J,'s comment on 2020-06-04 08:21:58:
The Septuagint: The oldest translation of the Hebrew Bible in existence. It was made into popular Greek in Alexandria, Egypt the third or second century B.C.
The Targum of Onkelos; a Chaldee or Biblically Aramaic paraphrase of the Pentateuch, possibly written in the 1st or 2nd century A.D. in Babylonia.
Our English Concordances are merely dictionaries of every word of the Bible; translated from those particular languages, for our help.
We must always rightly divide the Word of God as to its subject matter. The question must always be asked when reading or studying the word of God; "Concerning whom is this particular Scripture written to or about?" There is no doubt that every word from Genesis to Revelations was written for all people to read, study, learn, understand, love, and have faith in; but to believe that every word in the Bible is written directly to all people in all time, or that it concerns only us in particular is an error that will lead to puzzlement and frustration when trying to comprehend the word of God, look at Romans 15:4, 1 Corinthians 10:11.
When it comes to the topic of "mankind," God has simplified for the student as to whom the general "subject matter" being spoken of throughout It concerns. Scripture informs us that there are three distinct classes or divisions of persons that the word of God addresses. These three classes collectively account for all of mankind. The divisions of persons are plainly given to us in the First Letter written by Paul to the Corinthians;
(1 Corinthians 10:32)
Give none offence, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God.
D.J.'s comment on 2020-06-04 08:20:27:
Thank you for your reply.
You are correct; the (Hebrew) translation of the word "Gentile" is the word "goy." However, from the definition given below from Strong's Concordance it clearly states the word "FOREIGN."
(#1471) goy, go-ee- a foreign nation; hence, a gentile; also (fig.) a troop of animals, or a flight of locusts:- Gentile / heathen / nation / people.
In addition, the Greek definition, which you correctly defined as "ethnos" leaves no room for error concerning the topic we are discussing.
"Gentiles"(#1484) ethnos, eth-nos- a race (as of the same habit), i.e. a tribe; spec. a foreign (non-Jewish) one (usually by impl. pagan):- Gentile / heathen / nation / people.
The name "Gentiles" was given by God to all people that were considered foreign to the Jews, to their lineage, and to the covenant relationship they enjoyed with the Lord. They are collectively defined as any foreign nation in relation to the nation of Israel. The first occurrence of the word "Gentiles" is found in (Gen 10:5), and concerns the spreading forth of the offspring of the sons of Noah into "their lands;" referring to the lands of the "Gentiles."
Abraham is the father of many NATIONS, because GOD SAID that through him, ALL nations would be blessed! Not just (future) nation of Israel.
The English speaking publishing houses of North America have no control or influence over the ORIGINAL words of God that we have locked in place. The Hebrew and Chaldean words of the Old Testament and the Greek words of the New Testament have been preserved for thousands of years through ancient documents such as:
The Masoretec Text- The authoritative Hebrew text of the Jewish Bible.
The Samaritan Pentateuch, which is a translation of the Torah into Aramaic. It is written in the Samaritan alphabet, which is supposed to be an ancient form of Hebrew, and is believed to have come down from the Ten Tribes as early as the 4th century B.C.
Alex's comment on 2020-06-04 08:07:24:
comments about the Origination of Christ. It was Mary that came thru the bloodline of David the tribe of Judah but not Christ as JESUS WAS NOT OF THIS WORLD he told the Jews you are of this WORLD but i am not of this world you are from beneath i am from above. Jesus was the living Word made flesh and blood . Had he been from Mans seed he wd have carried the stain and the spot of adam and cd NOT have been the lamb of God without spot meaning the spot of adam Jesus asked the pharisees what think ye of Christ whos seed is he they replied Davids seed ( the tribe of judah ) then answered Jesus if David calls him lord how can he be his son ( his seed etc He was Davids lord ) heavenly not of this earth. But many did call him the son of david only b/c David was a type of Christ and his son was the Solomon which means comforter the H.G. WHICH IS THE SON OF CHRIST HIS OFFSPRING VIA HIS SEED ETC THE LIVING WORD. To whom the WORD came it made them Gods thus Christ can reproduce after the God kind spirit,thats y he is saying that which is born of the spirit is spirit thats God the comforter the H.G. It was the father that made this law that everything has to reproduce after its kind, but we see that Christ can reproduce after Gods kind Spirit. Thats y Jesus refers to the h.g as the Promise he is the multiplIcation of CHRIST IN US VIA HIS SEED THE WORD. Thats y he is saying to whom the word came it made them Gods,he is able to reproduce God in humanity via his seed and this cannot be refuted as Jesus said the scripture cannot be broken. gb
D.J.'s comment on 2020-06-04 07:03:00:
I believe there are two accounts of creation because of the information given to me by God in Genesis chapter 1 and Genesis chapter 2. In addition, I have provided Scripture to add weight to what is being proposed.
Are you sure you read the three pages of information sent to you concerning the various subjects conversed upon? You commented on only one portion. Any question or comment concerning the Scripture used to support my point of view?
I understand your general vs. specific remark concerning some hypothetical person being called a liar or hypocrite for not giving the complete story at the beginning. It is strange, as I would call someone neither a hypocrite nor a liar for generally informing me of a car accident.
If you do not agree with a statement concerning Scripture, show me my error through Scripture, rather than offer some random explanation of what I might be thinking, give no Scripture to back up your statement, and answer none of the questions presented to you.
To answer your questions;
God only created one earth and one heaven; but three separate and distinct heaven and earth AGES (2 Peter 3:5, 6, 13).
God only created one light, the sun; the moon is only a reflection of that light.
peter- message to you all's comment on 2020-06-04 05:55:20:
yous are doing good work and good comments here and I want to say I am giving you a day off
Joseph's comment on 2020-06-04 01:57:04:
I want to know any where in the Epistles where the word of God is directly refereed to as food.
Chris's comment on 2020-06-04 01:06:08:
D.J., I notice you are engaged with others & understand that you would prefer these comments be closed since no more can really be added, however, I would just offer a few thoughts hopefully without much repetition.
In reference to the 'Races'. If the Bible tells us that the sons of Noah were Shem, Ham & Japheth who survived him, then we have to assume that the races (the Gentiles from Ham & Japheth) were the ones to populate the other parts of the world. How some of those Gentiles then developed features that presumably were far removed from their forefather, the Bible does not explain. However, I realize that you have that explanation: that there was a dual creation that had taken place (& you cited Scriptures which I couldn't find relevant) that would account for these other races. Though again, how certain developed characteristics very different from the original 'mold' can only be speculation.
And then you state that at the time of saving of Noah & his family, that this other creation of humans had a representation as well in the Ark (including the giants who had to be there to account for giants mentioned later on), so that they might all be saved. So, focusing on this 'other Creation of humans': as you know, I find no reference to them in the Bible, though you clearly see in the Scriptures this event taking place. Would you know where God had placed these other people, maybe somewhere near Eden; did Satan come to them to tempt them as well; if so, what was the result of that temptation; if not, then do we have a pure race living amongst us; & finally, why were these important facts hidden from our knowledge, since their presence & activity in the World would have a direct bearing on Gentiles? So, even with a dual Creation, we still get questions that really can't be answered as there is simply no answer to them, only speculation. For this reason, as stated earlier, I rather rest on revealed Truth & leave the unknown/unanswered to God. My thanks again.
bob Hilt's comment on 2020-06-03 19:43:09:
DJ I agree with your assessment of the sons of God. However please know that Gentiles can mean foreign nation, it merely means NATION. in Hebrew it is the word Goy and it means nation, no more and no less. In the Greek it comes from the work Ethnos, which is where the word Ethnic comes from, as in Ethnic group.
It can mean foreign, heathen and the same word is also used in reference to Israel . The King James translated Nation and gentile differently using the same exact word. they were not consistent in their usage of the translation of the same word. Imagine if they wrote that Abraham would be the father of many gentiles. No in that instance they used the word nation, but the same goy word was used.
Gentile does not mean non Jew even though the owners of the publishing houses want us to believe that is what it means.
Genesis 10:5 By these were the isles of the (Goy) Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their (Goy) nations. Gentiles and nations is the same exact word in the Hebrew and Greek.
Adam's comment on 2020-06-03 16:54:40:
Why do you think there's 2 accounts? I haven't seen any evidence toward that. Those 2 verses are not evidence of that. I could only guess why you assume that, but it would only be a guess. Some people have previously interpreted writing structure incorrectly as separate accounts. Maybe this is what you're thinking?
That's based on a logical fallacy though and I can demonstrate. Let's say I see a car wreck and I run up to someone's house and say 'hey, there's been a car wreck and someone's hurt!' then I explain 'A truck came from the west and a car came from the east and they collided and someone broke their leg! Can you call for help?!'
And let's say that instead of calling for help the person says, 'why do you lie? You just said there was a car wreck, and now you claim there is a second car wreck in the same place? And you claim that someone was 'hurt' then someone 'broke their leg', so which is it you hypocrite?
The response is what some people do to the Bible. See, when people explain things they will generally start with a general thesis of what happened, then go into the details. This is common among speeches, and literary works. So, what happens is some people read in Genesis that the God created the heaven and the earth in verse 1, then use the logical fallacy as I just explained to claim that it's contradictory to what the rest of Genesis says. 'Did God create 2 earths? Was there 2 lights? How can it say he created x, then x doesn't happen until day x?' etc. The same logical fallacy over and over which fails to recognize the author simply using typical patterns of being specific vs general. It doesn't mean they are separate accounts.
By chance is that related to your thinking there are 2 separate creation accounts?
D.J.'s comment on 2020-06-03 15:56:19:
How do we still have other races after the flood? The answer is because He has told us that throughout all of Scripture. God said that these nations of the earth would be against the nation of Israel for Israel's correction (Isaiah 10:5), and that these nations would also be blessed at the end (Isaiah 19:25).
On a side note; you commented concerning the Tower of Babel.
It is interesting to note that the dispersion of Shem, Ham, and Japheth, and their descendants is given in chapter 10, before the cause of their dispersion, which is recorded and explained in chapter 11.
This is an example of a figure of speech known as Hysterologia, (Hys-ter-o-log-i-a). This figure is used when something is put last, which ought, according to the usual order, come first. It is, in a sense, a transposition of connected events.
So then, the events of (Genesis 10:5, 20, 31, 32) took place after the events of (Genesis 11:1-9), and the events of (Genesis 10:5, 20, 31, 32) took place because of the events of (Genesis 11:1-9).
In other words, it was only after the "tower" (Genesis 11:4) was built, and judgment was pronounced on the sons of Noah and others, that their language was then confounded, and the "GENERATIONS OF THE SONS OF NOAH" (Genesis 10:1) were "scattered" (Genesis 11:7, 8) from that general area into the different "isles" (Genesis 10:5), "lands" (Genesis 10:20), and "nations" (Genesis 10:31), and "peoples" (Revelations 17:5) of the earth.
D.J.'s comment on 2020-06-03 15:53:51:
Scripture concerning other "flesh," accounting for a male and female representative of each race to come aboard the Ark can be verified through Scripture. This can absolutely account for the other races of people on the earth after the flood of Noah's time, look at (Genesis 6:17, 6:19, 7:15, 16, etc.).
The Strong's definition of "Gentile" is a "FOREIGN" nation from the nation of Israel. If there is no foreign nation to Israel because we are all from Adam, then what FOREIGN lands are the children of Noah proceeding into in Genesis 10:5?
"By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations."
Who are the "Gentiles"? How are the Gentiles a product of Adam if the Gentiles are FOREIGN to Adam? It can't be both ways.
The information concerning the "giants" being on the earth after the flood is also verified by Scripture in Genesis 6:4, "and also after that," also look at Numbers 13:33, Deuteronomy 3:11. If the "Sons of God" mentioned in Genesis 6:2, 4, are not fallen angels, then who do "giants" come from? Humans' mating with humans does not produce a giant. Neither does a change in one's geographical location, nor a confusion of language, will change the ethnicity of a particular race.
If God said that "ALL FLESH" (Genesis 6:17) would be destroyed that breathed the breath of life, how did the giants survive? Answer- because He told us they survived in Genesis 6:4. The great whales and sea creatures that breathe air survived, but we are not told that. We are told what we need to know. God uses both literal and figurative language, and it is our job to figure it all out. What we do know is that the word of God is the Truth.