“Jesus answered and said, This voice came not because of me, but for your sakes.”
King James Version (KJV)
Grace's comment on 2020-08-11 14:41:19:
Hello Jose,
Yours is not a foolish question, but complex to many and controversial to fools. It is fools who engender strife and show they are ignorant time and time again
In verse 28, Jesus was not giving an order but was urging in this context. It is no different to you or someone strongly encouraging a parent to buy this, or choose that, or do something that seems obviously good. This said, it does not negate the concept of the Trinity because it supports the tenet that the son is not the father, but that also the son is equally God as some will argue that Jesus did give an order
In verse 30, the voice was a witness to the crowd so that they will recall it during or after the crucifixion and be encouraged out of their fear and doubts that it was really the Messiah with them. Therefore, it was a prophecy for their sake
Bob Grove's comment on 2020-08-11 11:48:53:
If any man lack wisdom let him ask of God who gives it liberally , but let him ask in faith .
Foolish questions gender strife .
Jose Sanchez's comment on 2020-08-11 09:46:13:
I have a great question , when the Lord Jesus said: "Father glorify thy name" , did Jesus give an order to the Father? , but this can't be, because Jesus said , "my father is greater than I"
And the verse "this voice came not because of me , but for your sakes". What does it mean?
I hope to get an answer.
Have a nice day.